Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phước Thiền

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT PHƯỚC THIỀN

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

What make a good souvenir?

            On my desk at home, I have a collection of souvenirs; objects that remind me of places I’ve visited and important events in my life. These objects include a model boat that I saw being carved from a piece of wood on a Caribbean island, a piece of lava that emerged hot from a volcano in the year I was born, and a shell (1) _____ on my favourite childhood beach.

            Unlike everything else, from which memory and detail fades, it is as if the longer you hold on to certain objects, the (2) ________ their associations with the past become, and the sharper the recollections that gather around them. They are, (3) ________, real souvenirs, encapsulations not only of the place, but of your time in the place. But these days, the term “real souvenirs” sounds like a contradiction in terms, and this is because the objects sold to tourists as souvenirs are often cheap mass-produced imports that have nothing to do with the place at all.

            It’s often the (4) _____ that the best souvenirs, like my shell, are found rather than purchased, but browsing for souvenirs can also be a fun holiday activity. But if you are buying souvenirs on holiday this summer, make sure they (5) ________  the reality test. A good souvenir is not just made in the area where it is bought, it also says something about the culture of that area. It is something made by local people using sustainable local materials, and because you are effectively supporting the local economy, it shouldn’t come too cheap, either.

Question 1.

A. come across                B. found out

C. picked up                     D. bumped into

Question 2.

A. larger                          B. wider

C. harder                          D. greater       

Question 3.

A. therefore                     B. whereas

C. however                       D. otherwise

Question 4.

A. point                           B. case 

C. fact                              D. truth

Question 5.

A. pass                            B. win

C. take                            D. beat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 6. Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the pollution of the seas.

A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented provided that many countries follow the same policy.

B. By putting into practice a series of precaution it is generally believed that the pollution of the seas will be prevented.

C. The sea will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a majority of the countries.

D. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to the pollution of the sea.

Question 7. As Keanu Reeves became more famous, it was more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters.

A. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.

B. The more Keanu Reeves became famous, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.

C. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters it was.

D. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult it was for him to avoid newspaper reporters.

Question 8. Much as George loved travelling in Asia, he decided not to go to Iraq because of his fears of terrorism.

A. As Iraq had become a high-risk terrorism spot, George, who normally loved Asia, was afraid to go there.

B. Even though George liked touring Asia very much, he was afraid of terrorism in Iraq, so he chose not to go there.

C. Although George liked touring Asia, ever since the threat of terrorism started, he hadn’t been to Iraq.

D. George would have gone to Iraq if he hadn’t been scared of terrorism so much because Asia was his favorite travel spot.

Question 9. The man in that painting reminds me of my uncle.

A. There are some likeness between my uncle and the man in that painting.

B. My uncle and the man in that painting were very alike.

C. The man in that painting bears a strong resemblance to my uncle.

D. In that painting the man has something similar to my uncle.

Question 10. She never lets her daughter participate in an activity unless it is under the supervision of an adult.

A. The only activities in which she allows her daughter to take part are those watched over by a grown-up.

B. If an older person is in attendance, she usually agrees to her daughter’s participation in activities.

C. She always takes her daughter to activities which are supervised by grown-ups.

D. As long as she herself is present at the activity, she permits her daughter to join in.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            In 1752, Benjamin Franklin made his textbook experiment with a brass key and a silk kite that he flew in a thunderstorm to prove that lightning and electricity are the same thing. In 1920, a kite-flying championship for families and individuals was held in London. These two seemingly unrelated events underscore the fact that kites can be flown for both pleasure and scientific purposes. For example, in the 1800s weather bureaus flew kites to record temperature and humidity at certain altitudes. On one occasion, ten kites were strung together and flown at a height of four miles to lift men and carry cameras aloft.

            The kite’s ability to fly depends on its construction and the way that its line is attached. The familiar diamond - shaped kite flies when its covered face is aligned against the wind flow. The line attached to the nose of the kite pulls it into the wind, thus creating the necessary angle for the lift force. If the kite’s construction and the angle of the air stream are correct, the kite will encounter greater pressure against its face and lower pressure against its back. The difference in the pressure creates a lift that causes the kite to rise until it hangs level from its bridle. Its angle against the wind should be sufficiently large or small to create maximum lift to overcome both drag and gravity. The towing point to which the line is attached is important because it sets the kite’s angle relative to the air flow. Although the kite must be headed up and into the wind with a velocity of 8 to 20 miles per hour, it can maintain its position through a tail, a rudder, a keel, vents, or tassels.

Question 11. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. What makes kites stay up in the air.                                 

B. How kites can be utilized.

C. What parts kites consist of.                                               

D. Why kites are were spurned.

Question 12. The word “aloft” in the reading passage is closet in meaning to _____.

A. for the analysis                  

B. in the flood

C. in flight                             

D. for amusement

Question 13. According to the passage, the kite flies when its nose is ______.

A. pointed away from the ground                                         

B. balanced with the tail

C. pointed into the wind flow                                                           

D. aligned parallel to the wind flow

Question 14. What is necessary condition for the kite to fly?

A. The kite must be sufficiently strong to withstand great pressure.

B. The kite must be diamond-shaped, and the wind of a certain velocity.

C. The pressure against its back must be lower than the pressure against its face.

D. The pressure of the air flow must be lower than the weight of the kite.

Question 15. According to the passage, the line of the kites is important because it _____.

A. lifts the kite’s cover and frame into the air space

B. contributes to the shape of the kite and extends it

C. conveys the direction of the wind and the air flow

D. determines the angle between the kite and the air flow

Question 16. The phrase “headed up” in the passage is closet in meaning to ______.

A. diverted                              B. directed

C. drafted                               D. dropped

Question 17. The paragraph following the passage most would likely discuss _____.

A. fiberglass kites flown in competition

B. the cords and wires needed for kite flying

C. elements of kite design and composition 

D. bowed kites curved on their faces

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 18. As the years passed, Joe’s memories of his terrible experience _____ away, and he began to lead a normal life again.

A. got                               B. backed 

C. faded                            D. passed

Question 19. People should eat _____ and do _____ to reduce the risk of heart disease.

A. less and less fat / the more exercise                                  

B. less fat / more exercise

C. the less fat / the more exercise                                          

D. the lease fat / the most exercise

Question 20. We all seem to have a different opinion, so let’s Joey decide, ___________?

A. shall we                             B. do we 

C. are we                                D. will we

Question 21. I suppose I found it hard at my new school because I just _____ to the situation.

A. wasn’t used                                   

B. wasn’t getting used                       

C. used not                            

D. didn’t use

Question 22. In no way ______ that people will be prevented from organizing peaceful protests.

A. this law means                   

B. means this law                  

C. this law does mean           

D. dose this law mean

Question 23. It’s about time Mrs. Richard apologized to me _____ me a gossip in front of everybody.

A. to have called                    

B. that she called                   

C. of calling                          

D. for having called

Question 24. He looked at me as if I _____ from the moon.

A. had just landed                 

B. have just landed                

C. would land                        

D. would have landed

Question 25. The elaborate bridal costumes of the coastal Indians are ____ from mother to daughter.

A. put through                        

B. taken after                         

C. parted with                        

D. handed down

Question 26. I can’t believe that Sabina is going to ______ on that parachute jump. Of course, she’s doing it for charity.

A. bear a charmed life                                                           

B. raise the alarm

C. risk life and limb                                                               

D. take sensible precautions

Question 27. Da Vinci’s Mona Lisa is _____; if it was destroyed no amount of money could ever replace it.

A. worthless                           

B. valueless                            

C. priceless                             

D. invaluable

Question 28. Although he _____ to Ernest Hemingway, I think his books are unique.

A. often has been compared                                                  

B. has often compared

C. has often been compared                                                  

D. has been often comparing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29. Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for high quality linguistic teaching.

A. noticeable                          

B. friendly

C. affectionate                          

D. natural

Question 30. The Extension Program first established in 1873 at Cambridge University has successfully withstood changing popular trends.

A. sponsored                  B. endured 

C. stabilized in                D. extended

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 31.

A. priority                     B. habitat 

C. protection                 D. essential

Question 32.

A. marvelous                 B. assistance 

C. armchair                    D. argument

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 33. Slang can be defined as a set of lexical, grammatical, and phonological regularities used in informal speech.        

A. informative                        

B. official

C. situational                          

D. casual

Question 34. The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism, and commerce.      

A. simplicity                           

B. disappearance                    

C. urgency                             

D. profitability

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 35.

A. intellectual                B. philosopher

C. discriminate               D. enlightenment

Question 36.

A. undergraduate          B. administrative

C. disadvantage             D. agricultural

Question 37.

A. emergency                B. activity

C. vulnerable                  D. initiative 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.

            The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.

            The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of parklike land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.

Question 38. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to _____.

A. hearing                              

B. concourse                          

C. computation                      

D. competition         

Question 39. What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?

A. It did not adhere to the original estimate.

B. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.

C. It was not included in the architectural design.

D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.

Question 40. The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to _____.

A. high ground                  B. site

C. several lots                   D. hills

Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.

A. George Washington contributed to the White House design

B. George Washington never lived in the White House

C. The White House was excluded from the city planning

D. George Washington often used the White House steps

Question 42. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued _____.

A. up to 1800                         

B. after 1800

C. until 1814                          

D. until 1792

Question 43. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?

A. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.

B. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.

C. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.

D. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.

Question 44. In line 20, the word “launched” is closest in meaning to _______.

A. stopped                  B. worked 

C. began                     D. requested

Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT _____.

A. hallways                     B. kitchen

C. medical offices             D. storage rooms

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions.

Question 46. Will you have time for some sightseeing?

A. No, I’m afraid not. I’ve got to run to the airport right after the meeting.

B. Yes, I go to the gym and I do a bit of jogging, but only to keep fit. How about you?

C. Yes, it’s fantastic. Great location & a comfortable bed – that’s all you need, isn’t it?

D. No, I’ve been here before on business. It’s a great city.

Question 46. I’m just here to read for fun. I can’t believe I’ve gone this long without reading The Catcher in the Rye.

A. Oh, so long. And don’t take it seriously.

B. I love that book. Some people think it’s overrated, but completely disagree.

C. It really was! I knew you looked familiar.

D. Ah, the American Pageant. That film taught me everything I needed to know about American History.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 48. Some people believe that humans will never use away all the natural resources of our Earth.

A. never                  B. natural resources

C. use away              D. believe that

Question 49. Amelia Earhart, the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic, disappeared on June 1937 while attempting to fly around the world.

A. the Atlantic                B. on

C. to fly solo                  D. attempting

Question 50. Owing to their superior skill, highly competitive athletes have been known to win contests and break records even when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.

A. when suffered                   

B. highly competitive             

C. have been known              

D. Owing to

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	D	A	B	A
6	7	8	9	10
D	D	B	C	A
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	C	C	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	C	C	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	D	A	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	C	C	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	B	B	A
36	37	38	39	40
B	C	D	A	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	C	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	C	B	A

Choose a word in each line that has different stress pattern

Question 1.

A. catastrophic             B. preservation

C. fertilizer                   D. electronic

Question 2.

A. participant              B. individual 

C. publicity                 D. competitive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 3. Vietnam exports (A) a lot of rice is grown (B) mainly in (C) the south of (D) the country.

Question 4. He passed (A) the exam with (B) high scores, that (C) made his parents happy.(D)

Question 5. To attract (A) someone’s attention, we can use (B) either verbal and non-verbal (C) forms of communication. (D)

Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differrently from the rest

Question 6.

A. fossil                       B. session

C. discuss                    D. progress

Question 7.

A. talked                     B. naked 

C. liked                       D. asked

Choose the best answer for each of the following sentences

Question 8. ………, no one was absent from the farewell party last night.

A. Heavily as it rained

B. As it rained heavily          

C. Though it rains heavily      

D. In spite of heavily rain

Question 9. He had changed so much since the last time we met that I …….. him.

A. could recognize     

B. could hardly recognize      

C. wouldn’t have recognized 

D. don’t recognize

Question 10. Jane cooks well……..she hates washing up afterwards.

A. however                 B. therefore

C. so                           D. but

Question 11. ……..his brother, Petter is active and friendly.

A. Alike                      B. Unlike

C. Dislike                    D. Liking

Question 12. Tom’s eyes were red ……..he had been swimming in a chlorinated pool.

A. so                            B. but

C. because                    D. in case

Question 13. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t ……..as usual.

A. ring off                   B. get off

C. go off                     D. take off

Question 14. A sudden idea ……..to the cyclist that he might try the new method.

A. occurred                 B. happened

C. took place               D. took part

Question 15. She asked me …….. I was looking at.

A. when                      B. if

C. what                       D. why

Question 16. We need to import……..from abroad.

A. a great deal of sports equipment

B. many sports equipments

C. a sports equipment

D. many pieces of sports equipment  

Question 17. …….. these books to the library, as they will soon overdue.

A. Bring                      B. Take

C. Fetch                      D. Leave

Question 18. Larry was so……..in his novel that he forgot about his dinner cooking in the oven.

A. absorbed                 B. attracted

C. drawn                      D. obliged

Question 19. “Sorry for being late. I was …….. in the traffic for more than an hour.”

A. carried on               B. held up

C. put off                     D. taken after

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 20. I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam

A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

Question 21. “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up.” she said to me.

A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.

D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

Question 22. Without her  teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay

A. Her teacher advised him and she didn't write a good essay.

B. Her teacher didn't advise her and she didn't write a good essay.

C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.

D. If her teacher didn't advise her, she wouldnt write such a good essay.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 23. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn't try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 24. Mary loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

A. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

B. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep without it.

C. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

D. As Mary couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when Mary was young, she loved it.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	B	C	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	B	A	B	D
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	C	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
A	A	A	B	B
21	22	23	24	25
D	C	C	A	D
26	27	28	29	30
B	D	C	A	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	A	C	A	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	D	C	A	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	A	D	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
B	B	B	A	C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

According to anthropologists, people in pre-industrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparison of the amount of work performed per week, however, began with the Industrial Revolution (1760-1840) when 10 to 12-hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half-day holiday. The half- day holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870s, but did not become common in the United States until the 1920s.

 In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930s. In 1914 Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.

 The Depression years of the 1930s brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8-hour day, 5-day workweek has been the standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5-hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37-hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6 to a 5-day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week

B. Changes that have occurred In the number of hours that people work per week

C. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries

D. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution

Question 2: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century

A. remained constant

B. decreased slightly

C. decreased significantly

D. increased significantly

Question 3: The word "henceforth" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. in the end

B. for a brief period

C. from that time on

D. on occasion

Question 4: The "idea" mentioned in line 13 refers to

A. the 60-hour workweek

B. the reduction in the cost of automobiles

C. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories

D. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse

Question 5: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United States during the 1930's?

A. Several people sometimes shared a single job.

B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United states.

C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.

D. The United States government instituted a 35-hour workweek.

Question 6: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Art of 1938?

A. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages

B. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek      

C. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers

D. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek

Question 7: The word "immutable" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A. unmatched                B. irregular

C. unnecessary              D. unchangeable

Mark the tetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence(s) given in each of the following questions.

Question 8: "You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to", the girl said to her younger brother.

A. The girl blamed her younger brother for returning the book late.

B. The girl advised her younger brother to return the book early.

C. The girl told her younger brother to return the book when she asked.

D. The girl wanted to have the book returned to her younger brother soon.

Question 9: You are breaking up a bit. I will call you back.

A. I can't understand why you're breaking up a bit, so I will call back.

B. I will call back to know why you two are breaking up.    

C. I will call you back because I can't hear you clearly.

D. I will call back to say goodbye.

Question 10: It's my shout this time! Waitress!

A. I will shout at the waitress.

B. I will pay for the drinks.

C. I have to call the waitress loudly.

D. The waitress does not seem to hear me well.

Question 11: Our company holds the monopoly over the import of these chemicals.

A. Our company is one of the few companies allowed to import these chemicals.

B. Ours is the only company allowed to import these chemicals.

C. All companies but ours are allowed to import these chemicals.

D. These exported chemicals are held by our company, which is monopoly.

Question 12: "Go on, Susan! Apply for the job," the father said.

A. The father forced Susan to apply for the job.

B. The father asked Susan to applying for the job.

C. The father wanted Susan not to apply for the job.

D. The father encouraged Susan to apply for the job.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 13:

A. cursed                      B. ragged

C. sacred                      D. compiled

Question 14:

A. desperate                  B. irritate

C. grateful                     D. frustrate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to decipher the mystery of climatic changes. Their objective has been to be able to precisely (15)______ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards to find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are directed at the spots (16)______the most intriguing climatic transformations (17)______ about, namely, the ultimate depths of the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves generate the patterns for the future weather.

The most efficient way of (18)_____ hold of the ever changing map of the swirling currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites equipped (19)_____complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the oceans and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by satellite scanning is that measurements can be (20)_____even in the most inaccessible parts of the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface together with the calculated wave height and wind speed.

Question 15:

A. unravel                     B. perceive

C. forecast                    D. explore

Question 16:

A. when                        B. where 

C. what                         D. why

Question 17:

A. come                        B. turn

C. bring                         D. get

Question 18:

A. getting                      B. coming

C. finding                       D. making

Question 19:

A. by                            B. with

C. in                             D. of

Question 20:

A. done                      B. formed

C. fulfilled                   D. taken

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	A	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
B	D	D	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	A	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	C	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	C	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	D	A	D	B
41	42	43	44	45
C	A	D	A	A
46	47	48	49	50
D	A	A	D	D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. malaria                     B. eradicate

C. character                  D. spectacular

Question 2:

A. amount                   B. countable

C. country                   D. around

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway.

A. easy to find

B. difficult to access

C. unlikely to happen

D. impossible to reach

Question 4: We have to husband our resources to make sure we make it through these hard times.

A. spend                      B. manage

C. use up                     D. marry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I didn't go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.

A. thanks to

B. on account of

C. in spite of 

D. in addition to

Question 6: TV commercials that sell household products have often been accused of reinforcing stereotypes of societal roles.

A. strengthening

B. modifying

C. contrasting 

D. exposing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 7: Which expression is used to start a conversation?

A. Well, it’s been nice meeting you

B. How’s everything at school?

C. Catch you later.

D. Sorry, I’ve got to go. Talk to you later.

Question 8: Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?” - Mary: “______.”

A. Neither. I’m going to lease one.

B. That's impossible. I can’t afford a new one

C. Yes, I'd like one. Thank you.

D. Yes, I am.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9:

A. microscopic               B. redundant

C. reluctant                   D. acquaintance

Question 10:

A. magnetic                  B. substitute

C. refusal                     D. phenomenon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11: In summer (A), warm southern air carries (B) moist (C) north to the eastern and central (D) United States.

Question 12: If you had sat (A) the plant in a cooler (B) location, the leaves (C) would not have burned (D).

Question 13: Fred, who usually conducts the choir rehearsals (A) did not show up (B) last night because he had (C) an accident on his way to the practice (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14: I got very nervous during the exam. When the examiner asked my name, my mind went completely ________.

A. empty                     B. blank

C. white                      D. void

Question 15: Some people are ________ interested in animals than in other people.

A. further                    B. far more

C. much                      D. most

Question 16: The complaints he received were like water off a duck’s ________.

A. feather                    B. wings 

C. back                        D. body

Question 17: There’s a rumor that the National Bank is going to ________ the company I work for.

A. take over                B. overtake

C. take on                   D. take off

Question 18: I can’t tell you the exact amount, but I can give you a ________ estimate.

A. smooth                   B. rough 

C. tidy                         D. similar

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	C	A	A	B
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	A	A	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	D	C	B	B
16	17	18	19	20
C	A	B	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
B	B	A	D	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	D	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	A	D	B	D
36	37	38	39	40
A	D	C	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	B	D	B
46	47	48	49	50

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:

Question 1.

A. promise                   B. devise

C. surprise                   D. realise

Question 2.

A. comment                B. development

C. confidence             D. reference

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions:

Question 3.

A. voluntary                 B. necessary  

C. compulsory             D. stationary

Question 4.

A. advent                     B. pizza

C. survive                    D. rescue

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:

Question 5. Works are written (A) by Vladimir Nabokov often (B) contain heroes and heroines who (C) have lived (D) in many places.

Question 6. Mostly (A) medical doctors have had (B) some training (C) in (D)psychology and psychiatry.

Question 7. Sandara has not rarely (A) missed a play (B) or concert since (C) she was seventeen years old (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions:

Question 8. I bought the car because it is in good quality and at a            price.

A. comfortable              B. valuable

C. reasonable              D. enjoyable

Question 9. More and more people were moving to Glasgow as they found it there             to earn a living.

A. so much easier 

B. much so easier 

C. so easier

D. by far the easiest

Question 10. You aren’t allowed to drive your car in the city centre at          rush hour because there is too much traffic then.

A. a                           B. an

C. x                           D. the

Question 11. I explained the grammar rule as           as I could, but many students are still confused.

A. simple                     B. simplified

C. simplistic                D. simply

Question 12. It’s amazing how Jenny acts as though she and Daren         serious problems at the moment.

A. aren’t having

B. weren’t having

C. hadn’t had

D. hadn’t been having

Question 13. When we were in Athens, I bought a         statuette.

A. white beautiful marble little

B. marble beautiful little white

C. beautiful little marble white

D. beautiful little white marble

Question 14. It         that many people are homeless after the floods.

A. is reported              B. reports

C. is reporting             D. reported

Question 15. The brain is made up of billions of neurons that differ          each other greatly               size and shape.

A. with – with              B. from – by

C. from – in                D. with - from

Question 16. I think the strikes will bring           some changes in management.

A. off                          B. on

C. down                      D. about

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	A	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	C	D	C
11	12	13	14	15
D	B	D	A	B
16	17	18	19	20
D	A	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	D	B	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	C	A	C
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	D	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	A	B	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	D	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	D	D	D

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